Peshitta Forum

Shlama,

Can anyone tell me if the word "mulkana" (Lexicon: 11913) can be translated as "declaration" and still carry the same meaning as "promise" as in Galatians 3:18?

"If the inheritance is by means of the Law, then it is no longer by means of the declaration [the declared thing, the promised thing], but God granted it to Abraham by means of the declaration."

Does this make sense?

Shlama Akhi Yaakub,

Well, mulkana can be mean "promise" or "declaration", but it can't be translated "declaration" and still mean "promise".
A promise is a declaration, but a declaration is not necessarily a promise. It could be simply a statement of fact.

What God gave to Abraham was more than a declaration of fact; it was a promise.

Make sense?


Dave Bauscher

"Mulkana" also can mean "property/goods", but only if in the plural ("mul-kan-eh")

Shlama,

gbausc Wrote:Make sense?

Dave, thanks, yes this makes sense.

Paul Younan Wrote:"Mulkana" also can mean "property/goods", but only if in the plural ("mul-kan-eh")

Paul, thank you for this additional note.

yaaqub Wrote:Paul, thank you for this additional note.

Akhi Yaaqub,

A nice play on words with "Yartutha" ("inheritance") and the alternate meaning of "Mulkaneh" ("property"), no ? <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->