Perhaps you can explain to me why there is this variant in the Greek. bread/dinner in Luke 14:15. Do you think this is because of a literal translation and an idiomatic translation of "bread" being "Jewish" for "supper", just as "tea" is English for "supper"? Just a thought.
Regards,
Chris
Hi Chris,
Yeah, that seems to be a pretty good assessment.
Bread, food, and breakfast / dinner / supper appear to be on a single track of thought to where Zorba 1 and Zorba 2 could have interpreted it differently in their minds. 'Split-idioms' occurring in the G.N.T.? ...Yup! I'd say so. <!-- s
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Akha Larry
Yeah, if this happens once it could be coincidence. But split idioms happens so often... Just like all the proofs, there are way too many to give Zorba comfort